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You work at Pass and you required to target potential customers to sell Cisco virtual Private Network
(VPN) solutions.
Which of the following two should you contact? (Select TWO).
A. An online movie retailer with multiple downloading locations that wants to centralize access to
large media files.
B. A bank that opens several branch offices require secure access to underwriting information on the
corporate extranet.
C. A denial of service (DoS) attack that disables Internet access for several thousand customers of a
large Internet Service Provider (ISP).
D. A growing exam vendor that needs a secure way for remote content editors to connect through the
Internet to the company extranet.
Answer: B, D
You work as a network consultant at Pass .com. You are required to sell Cisco Internet Protocol (IP)
telephony solutions.
Which would be the two best would-be customers? (Select TWO).
A. An enterprise with multiple offices must provide access to large volumes of content to support a
wide variety of business operations.
B. A growing publishing firm needs a secure way for remote content editors to connect through the
Internet to the company extranet.
C. A global supplier of integrated processors wants to implement specialized voice applications to
increase productivity and reduce the cost of overseas toll calls.
D. An accounting software manufacturer wants to streamline call center operations to reduce customer
wait time and improve employee productivity.
Answer: C, D
QUESTION 3
Cisco 12000 Series routers provide carrier-class availability and performance in both the network
backbone and at the edges. This solution is appropriate for a _____.
A. midsize financial services company that has acquired a smaller company, which has locations in three different cities
B. new and growing Internet hosting company with global Internet data centers whose business
customers depend on the reliability of the network
C. university that wants to create an integrated communications network that supports distance
learning, e-learning, and collaborative research
D. midsize enterprise organization that is migrating to a converged network for its internal employees
to address user needs for voice, video, and data
Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Your Pass trainee is curious about Cisco Works RWAN network management.
What should you tell him? (Select TWO).
A. It can be used to centrally manages QoS policies.
B. It can be used to manage VPN connections.
C. It can be used to provide remote access to users.
D. It can be used to troubleshoot performance “bottlenecks”.
E. It can be used to configure use across network links.
F. It can be used to troubleshoot LAN devices.
Answer: D, E
QUESTION 5
Your Pass boss wants you to give guidelines regarding usage of switches and routers.
What should you tell him? (Select THREE).
A. Layer-2/3 switches have more wire-area network (WAN) connections than routers.
B. Routers have more wire-area network (WAN) connections than Layer-2/3 switches.
C. Routers have more local-area network (LAN) connections than Layer-2/3 switches.
D. Layer-2/3 switches have more local-area network (LAN) connections than routers.
E. You should route where it is possible, switch only when you are required to.
F. You should switch where it is possible, route when you are required to.
Answer: B, D, F
You work as a network consultant at Pass .com. One of your clients has opted for Cisco Advisory Services.
What would this provide?
A. It would provide consultation that helps customers benefit from Cisco internal best practices,
Internet Protocol (IP) expertise, and networking experience.
B. It would provide a unified suite of professional engineering support offerings that helps customers
ensure their networks can support the latest network applications and technologies.
C. It would provide resources that help ensure that Cisco products operate efficiently, remain highly
available, and benefit from up-to-date system software.
D. It would provide consultation that helps customers identify third-party software and equipment that
enables their business applications to meet their own specific business goals.
Answer: A
Your Pass trainee asks you what is characterized by a Cisco router (Select TWO).
A. A router broadcast data to all devices that are connected to it across the LAN.
B. A router broadcast data to all devices that are connected to it across the WAN.
C. A router reads Media Access Control (MAC) addresses to forward messages to the correct location.
D. Routes traffic down alternative paths.
E. The Router stores data on the network.
F. A router is able to connect the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN).
Answer: D, F
You work as DSL broadband sales person at Pass . What should you tell potential DSL customers?
Which benefit does digital subscriber line (DSL) systems for broadband access provide to the user?
A. Digital subscriber line (DSL) systems provide a secure access to company extranet.
B. Digital subscriber line (DSL) systems provide data and audio signals that share the same
communications infrastructure.
C. Digital subscriber line (DSL) systems provide dedicated lines for high security data transfer.
D. Digital subscriber line (DSL) systems provide a simple solution for high-quality digital video using
coaxial cable.
Answer: B
In addition to telephone assistance, where can customers receive assistance form the Cisco Technical Assistance
Center (TAC)?
A. The Cisco TAC website.
B. Their Service Account Manager (SAM).
C. Industry-leading Cisco technical journals.
D. The Help feature within the Cisco Bug Toolkit.
Answer: A
How many components does ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) have?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: B
Explanation:
Confidentiality
Confidentiality is provided through the use of symmetric encryption algorithms such as Data
Encryption Standard (DES) or Triple DES (3DES). Confidentiality can be selected separately from all
other services, but the confidentiality selected must be the same on all endpoints of your VPN. Data
origin authentication and connectionless integrity Data origin authentication and connectionless
integrity are joint services offered as an option in conjunction with the likewise optional
confidentiality. Anti-replay service You can only use the anti-replay service if data origin
authentication is selected. Anti-replay election is based on the receiver, meaning that the service is
effective only if the receiver checks the sequence number. In case you were wondering, a replay attack
occurs when an attacker snags a copy of an authenticated packet and later transmits it to the intended
destination. When the duplicate, authenticated IP packet gets to the destination, it can disrupt services
or cause other ugly consequences. The Sequence Number field is designed to foil this type of attack.
Traffic flow For traffic flow confidentiality to work, you have to have tunnel mode selected. Tunnel
mode is most effective if it’s implemented at a security gateway where tons of traffic amasses—a
condition that can mask the true source-destination patterns of bad guys trying to breach your
network’s security.
You work as a network consultant at Pass .com. Pass wants to deploy Internet Protocol
videoconferencing (IP/VC).
Which advantages would this provide to the company? (Select TWO).
A. It would reduce travel time for instructors responsible for different geographic sites.
B. It would enable real-time discussions of patient information among remote medical teams.
C. It would increase sales and customer satisfaction due to current product information disseminated
simultaneously to a global sales force by headquarters.
D. It would improve morale and reduces turnover among employees who receive timely business
updates.
Answer: A, B
A Pass trainee asks you, in the context of a CiscoWorks network LAN Management Solution (LMS), what an opportunity indicator is.
What should you tell the trainee?
A. An opportunity indicator is a growing enterprise wanting to automate and simplify diagnosing
network problems at branch offices.
B. An opportunity indicator is an Internet service provider (ISP) needing to provide better quality of
service (QoS) to its customers.
C. An opportunity indicator is a global enterprise deploying a converged network of voice, video, and
data.
D. An opportunity indicator is a small insurance company hoping to cut toll-call costs to foreign
branch offices.
Answer: A
QUESTION 14
The employees of an organization meet regularly in conference rooms for project updates and presentations.
What need of this organization can be met by a wireless solution?
A. ensuring secure presentations
B. augmenting an existing network
C. providing a temporary network need
D. having freedom of movement within a network range
Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which two high-profile regulations have a global impact on the financial industry?
(Select TWO).
A. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
B. CNIC
C. Basel II
D. Sarbanes-Oxley
Answer: C, D

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According to RFC 3180, what is the correct GLOP address for AS 456?
A. 224.0.4.86
B. 224.4.86.0
C. 233.1.200.0
D. 239.2.213.0
E. 239.4.5.6
Answer: C
A network administrator is using a LAN analyzer to troubleshoot OSPF router exchange messages sent
to ALL OSPF ROUTERS. To what MAC address are these messages sent?
A. 00001CEF0000
B. 01005E000005
C. 01005EEF0000
D. EFFFFF000005
E. EF0000FFFFFF
F. FFFFFFFFFFFF
Answer: B
How is the Cisco sensor software version 5.0 different from the version 4.0 release?
A. The monitoring system pulls events from the sensor
B. The sensor supports intrusion prevention functinality
C. The sensor pushes events to the monitoring system
D. The sensor uses RDEP E. The sensor software calculates a Risk Rating for alerts to reduce false positives
Answer: BE
What is SDEE?
A. A Cisco proprietary protocol to transfer IDS events across the network
B. A protocol used by multiple vendors to transmit IDS events across the network
C. A queuing mechanism to store alerts
D. A mechanism to securely encode intrusion events in an event store E. A multipurpose
encryption
engine to symmetrically encrpt data across the network
Answer: B
Which of the following is true about the Cisco IOSIPS
functionality? (Choose 2)
A. The signatures available are built into the IOS code.
B. To update signatures you need to install a new IOS image
C. To activate new signatures you download a new Signature Defiition File (SDF) from Cisco’s web site
D. Loading and enabling selected IPS signatures is user configurable
E. Cisco IOS only provides Intrusion Detection functionality
F. Cisco IOSIPS
requires a network module installed in your router running sensor software
Answer: CD
What is the main reason for using the “ip ips denyaction
ipsinterface”
IOS command? A. To
selectively apply drop actions to specific interfaces
B. To enable IOS to drop traffic for signatures configured with the Drop action
C. To support loadbalancing
configurations in which traffic can arrive via multiple interfaces
D. This is not a valid IOS command
Answer: C
By default, to perform IPS deny actions, where is the ACL applied when using IOSIPS?
A. To the
ingress interface of the offending packet
B. To the ingress interface on which IOSIPS
is configured
C. To the egress interface on which IOSIPS
is configured
D. To the egress interface of the offending packet
E. To the ingress interface of the offending packet and the ingress interface on which IOSIPS
is
configured
Answer: A
What two things must you do on the router before generating an SSH key with the “crypto key
generate rsa” IOS command?
A. Configure the SSH version that the router will use
B. Configure the host name of the router
C. Enable AAA Authentication
D. Configure the default IP domain name that the router will use
E. Enable SSH transport support on the vty lines
Answer: BD
Whenever a failover takes place on the ASA running in failover mode, all active connections are
dropped and clients must reestablish
their connections unless
A. the ASA is configured for ActiveStandby
failover.
B. the ASA is configured for ActiveActive
failover.
C. the ASA is configured for ActiveActive
failover and a state failover link has been configured.
D. the ASA is configured for ActiveStandby
failover and a state failover link has been configured.
E. the ASA is configured to use a serial cable as the failover link.
F. the ASA is configured for LANBased
failover.
Answer: CD
Which of the following is true with respect to activeactive
failover on the ASA?
A. Activeactive
failover is available only for systems running in single context mode
B. Activeactive
failover is available only for systems running in transparent mode
C. Activeactive
failover is available only for systems running in routed mode
D. Activeactive
failover is available only for systems running in multiple context mode
E. Activeactive
failover is available for systems running in multiple or single context mode Answer: D
Whenever a failover takes place on the ASA (configured for failover), all active connections are
dropped and clients must reestablish
their connections unless: (Choose 2)
A. The ASA is configured for ActiveStandby
failover.
B. The ASA is configured for ActiveActive
failover.
C. The ASA is configured for ActiveActive
failover and a state failover link has been configured.
D. The ASA is configured for ActiveStandby
failover and a state failover link has been configured.
E. The ASA is configured to use a serial cable as the failover link.
F. The ASA is configured for LANBased
failover
Answer: CD
Which algorithms did TKIP add to the 802.11 specification? (Choose 3)
A. key mixing
B. AESbased
encryption
C. antireplay
sequence counter
D. message integrity check
E. cyclic redundancy check
Answer: ACD

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You have a Catalyst 6500 with a Supervisor IA with a MSFC. After a power outage, the MSFC
has lost its boot image and now will only boot into ROMMON mode. You want to load a new
image onto the Catalyst MSFC boot flash. What method can you use?
A. Console connection using Xmodem
B. FTP
C. TFTP
D. SNMP
E. SSH
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Catalyst 6000 Supervisor I and II modules have an onboard Flash file system that can handle
several image files. In addition to this Flash, they also have a PCMCIA Flash slot. These
Supervisors run their software from RAM and do not need their Flash system once correctly
booted up. If an image is then corrupted or deleted, the standard upgrade procedure is always
possible as long as the Supervisor is running a valid image. If the Supervisor is not booting up
because there is no valid image to boot from the ROMMON, you will have to use the recovery
procedure.
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Which of the following statements regarding the use of SPAN on a Catalyst 6500 are true?
A. With SPAN an entire VLAN can be configured to be the source.
B. If the source port is configured as a trunk port, the traffic on the destination port will also be
tagged, irrespective of the configuration on the destination port.
C. In any active SPAN session, the destination port will not participate in Spanning Tree.
D. It is possible to configure SPAN to have a Gigabit port as the destination port.
E. In one SPAN session it is possible to monitor multiple ports that do not belong to the same
VLAN.
Answer: A, C, D, E
Explanation:
A destination port (also called a monitor port) is a switch port where SPAN sends packets for
analysis. If the trunking mode of a SPAN destination port is “on” or “nonegotiate” during SPAN
session configuration, the SPAN packets forwarded by the destination port have the ncapsulation
as specified by the trunk type; however, the destination port stops trunking, and the show trunk
command reflects the trunking status for the port prior to SPAN session configuration.
For a detailed discussion on SPAN and RSPAN refer the link below.

A new TACACS+ server is configured to provide authentication to a NAS for remote access
users. A user tries to connect to the network and fails. The NAS reports a FAIL message. What
could be the problem? (Choose all that apply).
A. The TACACS+ service is not running on the server.
B. The password for this user is incorrect.
C. The username does not exist in the TACACS+ user database.
D. The NAS server lost its route to the TACACS+ server.
E. The TACACS+ server is down.
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
A FAIL condition is a result of incorrect username/password information. It means that an
authentication request was successfully received, but that it had failed. A FAIL response is
significantly different from an ERROR. A FAIL means that the user has not met the criteria
contained in the applicable authentication database to be successfully authenticated.
Authentication ends with a FAIL response. An ERROR means that the security server has not
responded to an authentication query. Because of this, no authentication has been attempted.
Only when an ERROR is detected will AAA select the next authentication method defined in the
authentication method list.

You have forgotten the password to your Catalyst 5000 switch. Immediately after power cycling
the switch, you are faced with the password prompt. What default password should you type in?
A. cisco
B. abc123
C. sanfran
D. CTRL+ESC
E. No password, just hit the Enter key
Answer: E
Explanation:
Password recovery in Cat 5000 switch is performed in the following way. Power cycle the switch.
Hit the Enter key during the first 30 sec. The switch will allow you to get into the enable mode.
You will have 60 seconds to change the password and save the configuration change made
during this period.

While setting up remote access for your network, you type in the “aaa new-model” configuration
line in your Cisco router. Which authentication methods have you disabled as a result of this
change? (Choose all that apply.)
A. RADIUS
B. RADIUS+
C. Extended TACACS (XTACACS)
D. TACACS
E. TACACS+
F. Kerberos
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
When you enable AAA, you can no longer access the commands to configure the older
deprecated protocols, TACACS or Extended TACACS. If you decided to use TACACS or
Extended TACACS in your security solution, do not enable AAA.

Which of the following statement is true regarding clocking for a Cisco T1 interface?
A. The clock source command selects a source for the interface to clock received data.
By default, it is clock source loop-timed (specifies that the T1/E1 interface takes the clock from
the Tx (line) and uses it for Rx).
B. Routers are DTEs and NEVER supply clocking to T1/E1 line.
C. The clock source command specifies the location of the NTP server for timing.
D. The clock source selects a source for the interface to clock outgoing data.
The default is clock source line –Specifies that the T1/E1 link uses the recovered clock from
the line.
E. The clock source identifies the stratum level associated with the router T1/E1.
The default is Stratum 1.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clocking can either be internal, looped, or line. The default is line, meaning that the router is
receiving clocking from the carrier network line.
Incorrect Answers:
C, E. These answers relate to NTP services, which are used for providing time stamping
information to the router and does not relate to clocking. Stratum levels provide a hierarchy to the
NTP source, with the highest level as 1.

Network management tools use Management Information Base (MIB) information to monitor and
manage networks. Which of the following is NOT part of the MIB-2 specification, as defined in
RFC 1213? (Choose all that apply)
A. The System Group
B. The TCP Group
C. The Transmission Group
D. The Enterprises Group
E. The RMON Group
F. The ICMP Group
Answer: D, E
Explanation:
RFC 1213 defines the “Management Information Base for Network Management of TCP/IP-based
internets: MIB-II” specification. It defines all of the following groups:
System, Interfaces, Address Translation, IP, ICMP, TCP, UDP, EGP, Transmission, and SNMP.
The RMON group is not part of RFC 1213, nor is the Enterprises Group

Which types of SNMPv1 messages are sent from the NMS (Network Management Station) using
SNMP version 1 to the Agent?
A. Trap, Get and Set
B. Get, Set and Getnext
C. Get, Set, Getnext and GetBulk
D. Get, Set and GetBulk
E. Trap only
Answer: B
Explanation:
SNMP itself is a simple request/response protocol, and the SNMPv1 operations used bythe NMS
are defined as below.
Get: Allows the NMS to retrieve an object variable from the agent. GetNext: Allows the NMS to
retrieve the next object variable from a table or list within an agent. In SNMPv1, when a NMS
wants to retrieve all elements of a table from an agent, it initiates a Get operation, followed by a
series of GetNext operations.
Set: Allows the NMS to set values for object variables within an agent.
Incorrect Answers:
A, E. SNMP traps are used by the agent to inform the NMS of some events.
C, D. GetBulk is used in SNMPv2, not version 1. SNMPv2 defines two new operations: GetBulk
and Inform. The GetBulk operation is used to efficiently retrieve large blocks of data. The Inform
operation allows one NMS to send trap information to another NMS and to then receive a
response. In SNMPv2, if the agent responding to GetBulk operations cannot provide values for all
the variables in a list, it provides partial results.

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How many subnets can be gained by subnetting 172.17.32.0/23 into a /27 mask, and how many usable
host addresses will there be per subnet?
A. 8 subnets, 31 hosts
B. 8 subnets, 32 hosts
C. 16 subnets, 30 hosts
D. A Class B address can’t be subnetted into the fourth octet.
Answer: C

If you are a security administrator of the enterprise network ,you will see many different types of attacks
that threaten the security of network. Which type of attack is characterized by a flood of packets that are
requesting a TCP connection to a server?
A. denial of service
B. Computer Virus
C. reconnaissance
D. Trojan horse
Answer: A
An administrator is configuring a router that will act as the hub in a Frame Relay hubandspoke
topology. What is the advantage of using pointtopoint
subinterfaces instead of a multipoint interface on
this router?
A. It avoids splithorizon
issues with distance vector routing protocols.
B. Only one IP network address needs to be used to communicate with all the spoke devices.
C. Only a single physical interface is needed with pointtopoint
subinterfaces, whereas a multipoint
interface logically combines multiple physical interfaces.
D. Pointtopoint
subinterfaces offer greater security compared to a multipoint interface configuration.
Answer: A
A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square shaped
TestInside office. A few wireless TestInside users are experiencing slow performance and drops while
most users are operating at peak efficiency. From the list below, what are three likely causes of this
problem? (Choose three)
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. null SSID
C. cordless phones
D. mismatched SSID
E. metal file cabinets
F. antenna type or direction
Answer: CEF

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Newly Released MCP Exams

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